The way I understand what Paul is saying in Romans 11:17-24, we should of course not forget or disdain the old covenant, the law that required sacrifice for our sins, because it is that covenant that Christ fulfilled in bring Grace to mankind. In understanding that covenant we can partially answer the question “Why did Christ have to die?” (The other answer is harder: because God willed it.)

I have a hard time understanding Paul mentioning “First Jews, then Gentiles” as well, but remember that Jesus even told his disciples to teach first the Jews, and when that mission was exhausted to expand to other peoples:

“5 These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: “Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. 6 Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel. 7 As you go, preach this message: ‘The kingdom of heaven is near.’ 8 Heal the sick, raise the dead, cleanse those who have leprosy, drive out demons. Freely you have received, freely give.

Matt 10:5-8 (NIV)”

“16 Then the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain where Jesus had told them to go. 17 When they saw him, they worshiped him; but some doubted. 18 Then Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. 19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”

Matt 28:16-20 (NIV)”

So we see that even Jesus’ ministry on earth followed this pattern of Jews first, then the rest of us. There was a loving correction of God’s wayward chosen people, followed by an edict to move further abroad.

The more I think about what I said earlier the more I agree with my first impulse here. It’s not that we as gentiles should become prideful for having been chosen by God to be saved of our sins. Far from it, we’re called on to be humble in that realization. Really, anytime I get prideful about my smarts or my writing ability, I have but to think about the nature of my salvation, that it is nothing I’ve done and nothing I am that caused it, but by God’s whim, his kingly good pleasure, that I am saved. He didn’t see that I’d be a great tool in his hands, or that I have any sort of advantage that any other believer doesn’t. There is utterly nothing I am or do or could possibly be or do that could change my standing before my maker or prompt his saving grace.

That… is a humbling thought.

These are only questions, I don’t have the answers, and maybe it isn’t worth focusing too much on them, so feel free to bow out at any time here.

I always hesitate to ascribe a certain time interval to the word “soon”. Christ himself says that he will be returning in the second coming “soon”, as does Paul, I believe. And though you can make a case for the destruction of the Temple in ~70AD as an end to the world (the Jews viewed the Temple as a micro-cosmos symbolizing the heavens and the earth) and an ultimate judgement on the Jewish religion, I think it is clear that the Apostles believed that they would not die before Christ came again.

Also, I believe Romans 11:11-24 is pretty clear that Christ’s covenant doesn’t cut out the root of the olive tree, but is a “shoot from the stump of Jesse”(Is 11:1) and that we gentiles are then grafted into that olive branch.

This may not be related, but Paul several times in Romans says the phrase: “first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.” Which, at least to me, indicates that there is a pride of place for the Jews as they were the original children of the Promise. But if God had severed all ties with them, then why would they be first?

The final question I wanted to raise is when Paul says that the old will pass away, does that mean that God will actively destroy it, or that if there is no one left who lives under it that it will simply not apply to anyone?

The way I have always understood salvation history is that God, starting with the family unit, offered (through new covenants) a relationship to more and more people (household, tribe, nation, kingdom, world). And though the final covenant was infinitely superior (it opened up salvation to the whole world AND instead of simply being “God’s people” we became His sons and daughters (1 John 3:1) – it also had the benefit of opening up, as an inheritance, life everlasting in Heaven) it wasn’t a break from the old covenant, but rather Christ in the same moment took all the curses of the old law upon Himself and established a new law of Grace through His blood.

I don’t know. I don’t have really well thought out answers to any of these questions, and if you don’t want to pursue this topic, that’s totally fine. I just wanted to open a brief discussion because understanding where we come from can be important.

God Bless,
Bob

The way I read what Paul is saying in the passage you noted in Romans, he believes that Israel will get a “second chance” when it comes time for Christ to judge the earth. They can either acknowledge him, or die. For us gentiles, this doesn’t look all that different from the choice we’re given prior to that day. Remember, every knee will bend, either now in worship or that day.

I could be wrong about my interpretation there, of course. There are just as many protestants that would say the Jews are no different than the rest of us in their need for Jesus as savior, and that the same “rules” apply to them. Bow now or later, but you -will- bend knee.

Matthew 5:17-20 is awesome. Christ is sitting on a rock or stump and teaching on this mountain, and is about to take apart piece by piece the various additions and expansions of the Mosaic Law/Covenant added by the Pharisees over the centuries. What you have to understand here is that Jesus literally IS the fulfillment of Mosaic law. Sin invokes God’s wrath. God’s wrath requires satisfaction. For centuries, he provided ritual sacrifice as a method for satisfying that wrath… but when he sent Jesus, he did so like Abraham taking Issac up onto the mountain. Jesus was the ultimate sacrifice, and was so for all of mankind. God thus satisfied his wrath against sin by sending the Son here to be the fulfillment of the old covenant.

Now, Jesus is saying that not one jot or iota of God’s law will pass away before “everything is accomplished,” which can only refer to final judgment. Lets step back and look at what God’s law actually IS for a moment.

When God created the world, it was perfect. When he created mankind, WE were perfect. And how could they not be, when his will is perfect? God gave Adam and Eve the earth, some instructions of what to do and what NOT to do, and thus we see him giving them free will to disobey should they so choose. Things go well for a while until Satan introduces the idea that man could be like God, full of the knowledge of good and evil, by eating of the fruit of that tree. Man sins, and introduces the sickness that infects us all into the world. Sin is deviance from God’s perfect will.

So, the law, really, is a re-explanation of God’s will. God has given us a second chance, basically, “Since you missed it and messed it up the first time, here it is in black & white. Ignore it at your peril.” So, Jesus’ words here saying that not one bit of God’s will for us will pass away until it is all accomplished is, well, perfectly understandable. Of course God’s will isn’t going to simply go away just because Jesus is here to give us the gift of his life to absolve us of guilt for our sins, past, present and future. It is our duty to live God’s will as best we can discern it. Thus, not one iota of God’s law will pass away until the final judgment and re-creation of the world with the Lamb of God on his eternal throne.

Remember, Jesus himself called his death and resurrection the “new covenant” at the last supper. Hebrews 8:13 says, “By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.” Whether that means the old covenant has passed away yet or not I don’t think we are really told outright. It is, however, implied that this old covenant is insufficient. (“7 For if there had been nothing wrong with that first covenant, no place would have been sought for another.
Heb 8:7 (NIV)”)

Hope this at least explains where I’m coming from in saying that Jesus fulfilled and as far as I can read, destroyed, the old covenant of sacrifice to satisfy God’s wrath against sin. This is, of course, my belief and as such could be woefully ignorant of some detail or bit of scripture. I am, however, persuaded that when Jesus said that no one would come to the Father except through him, he was talking about this. His covenant is superior, as the author of Hebrews says.

How do you reconcile that with Romans 11 (particularly 11-32, with special emphasis on 29) and also Matthew 5:17?